SSC Exam Paper Combined Graduate Level –

Government Jobs, Sample papers

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam Paper – 2011

Subject – General Intelligence and Reasoning

Part – A

Directions: In questions no. 1 to 9, select the related letters/wors/numbers from the given alternatives.


(a) LRBAGEA            (b) BARLAGE            (c) LERAGBA            (d) LERABGA

2. BDAC: FHEG:: NPMP : ?

(a) RQTS                    (b) QTRC                    (c) TRQS                    (d) RTQS

3. FGHI: OPQR :: BCDE : ?

(a) KLMJ                    (b) KLMN                   (c) IUVW                    (d) STUW


(a) OMKI                    (b) RSTU                    (c) QSRC                    (d) RPOM

5. 17:60::20:?

(a) 57                          (b) 69                          (c) 81                          (d) 93

6. 6:64::11:?

(a) 144                        (b) 169                                    (c) 121                        (d) 124

7. 123:4::726:?

(a) 23                          (b) 26                          (c) 14                          (d) 12

8. Fish: Scaales:: Bear : ?

(a) Feathers                 (b) Leaves                   (c) fur s                       (d) skin

9. Writer: pen :: ?

(a) Needle: Tailor       (b) Artist : Brush        (c) painter : canvas     (d) teacher : class

Directions: In questions no. 10 to 15, find the odd number/ letters /word from the given alternatives.

10. (a) prod                 (b) sap                                     (c) jab                         (d) thrust

11. (a) JKOP               (b) MNST                   (c) CABD                    (d) OPWX

12. (a) CAFD              (b) TSWV                   (c) IGLJ                      (d) OMRP

13. (a) 162                  (b) 405                                    (c) 567                        (d) 644

14. (a) 156                  (b) 201                                    (c) 273                        (d) 345

15. (a) Flute                (b) violin                     (c) guitar                     (d) sitar

Directions: which one of the given responses would be a meaningful descending order of the following?

16. I. Major                                                     II. Captain

III. Colonel                                                      IV. Brigadier

V. Lt. General

(a) V, IV, III, I, II                                            (b) V, I, IV, II, III

(c) IV, V, I, III, II                                            (d) III, IV, II, V, I

Directions: In questions no. 17 to 20 a series is given, with one/two term (s) missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

17. 8, 15, 36, 99, 288, ?, ?

(a) 368                        (b) 676                                    (c) 855                        (d) 908


(a) DR                         (b) RS                         (c) DS                         (d) MN

19. Reoc, pgme, nikg, lkii, ?

(a) acef                        (b) jmgk                      (c) efgh                       (d) wxyz

20. 4, 196, 16, 169,  ? , 144, 64

(a) 21                          (b) 81                          (c) 36                          (d) 32

21. Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

(a) 11-115                   (b) 10-90                     (c) 9-72                       (d) 8-56

22. In the following question, numbers of letters are skipped in between by a particular rule. Which of the following series observes the rule?

(a) ABFGJK                (b) ACFJOU               (c) MPQSTV              (d) ADFHJL

Directions: Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

23.       1. Dissident s                                      2. Dissolve

3. Dissent                                            4. Dissolute

5. Dissolution

(a) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2            (b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5                        (c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5            (d) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

24. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?


(a) cabcb                     (b) abccb                     (c) bacbc                     (d) bcaba

25. Ravi has spent a quarter (1/4) of his life as a boy, one-fifth (1/5) as a youth, one-third (1/3) as a man and thirteen (13) years in old age. What is his present age?

(a) 70 years                 (b) 80 years                 (c) 60 years                 (d) 65 years

26. Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of Sharat, who is loved most by his uncle Mithun. The head of the family is Ram Lal, Who is succeeded by his sons Gopal and Mohan. Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3 children. What is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?

(a) Uncle                     (b) Son                                    (c) Brother                  (d) No relation

27. Find the wrong number in the series.

6, 9, 15, 22, 51, 99

(a) 99                          (b) 51                          (c) 22                          (d) 15

28. In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from right. If they interchange their positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

(a) 34                          (b)36                           (c) 40                          (d) 41

29. At what time are the hands of clocks together between 6 and 7?

(a) 328/11 minutes past 6                               (b) 348/11 minutes past 6

(c) 308/11 minutes past 6                               (d) 325/7 minutes past 6

30. Out of 100 families in the neighbourhood, 50 have radios, 75 have TVs and 25 have VcRs. Only 10 families have all three and each VCR owner also has a TV. If some families have radio only, how many have only TV?

(a) 30                          (b) 35                          (c) 40                          (d) 45

31. Suresh was born on 4th October 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The Independence Day of that year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?

(a) Tuesday                 (b) Wednesday           (c) Monday                 (d) Sunday

32. Five boys A, B, C, D, E are sitting in a park in a circle. A is facing South-West, D is facing South-East, B and E are right opposite A and D respectively and C is equidistant between D and B. Which direction is C facing?

(a) West                      (b) South                     (c) North                     (d) East

33. Ganesh cycles towards South-West a distance of 8m, then he moves towards East a distance of 20 m. From there he moves towards north-East a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards West a distance of 6 m. From there he moves towards North-East a distance of 2 m. Then he moves towards West a distance of 4 m and then towards South-West 2 m and stops at that point. How far is he from the starting point?

(a) 12 m                      (b) 10 m                      (c) 8 m                        (d) 6 m

34. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:


(a) CONCERN            (b) NATION               (c) TRAIN                   (d) CENTRE

35. In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, ½ of the women are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If ¾ of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men have children, then what parts of workers are without children?

(a) 5/18                       (b) 4/9                                     (c) 11/18                     (d) 17/36

36. If a man on a moped starts from a point and rides 4 km Sousth, then turns left and rides 2 km to turn again to the right to ride 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?

(a) North                     (b) West                      (c) East                       (d) South

37. If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written as JCJZYSSD, then how can ANTIMONY be written in that code?

(a) CPVKOQPA         (b) CRZQWABO        (c) ERXMQSRC         (d) GTZOSUTE

38. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, then how can CALICUT be coded?

(a) 5279431                (b) 5978013                (c) 8251896                (d) 8543691

39. Two statements are given followed by four inferences. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.


India is becoming industrialized.

Pollution is a problem associated with industrialization.


  1. All industrial centres are polluted.
  2. India is polluted.
  3. Polluted nations are industrialized.
  4. India may become polluted.

(a) All are appropriate                                    (b) none is appropriate

(c) Only IV is appropriate                              (d) Only Ii is appropriate

40. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:


(a) DECLARATION                                       (b) NATIONAL

(c) TERMINATED                                         (d) DEVIATION

41.       2          7          9

7          3          4

9          8          ?

126      168      216

(a) 8                            (b) 3                            (c) 6                            (d) 36

42. Forecast the Growth Rate for the year 1995 from the following date:

Year 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Growth Rate 3.5 3.7 4.1 4.9 6.5 ?

(a) 7.8                         (b) 8.6                         (c) 9.7                         (d) 9.9

43. If ‘_’ stands for ‘¸’, ‘+’ stands for ‘*’, ‘¸’ for ‘_’ and ‘*’ for ‘+’, which one of the following equations is correct?

(a) 30-6+5*4/2=27     (b) 30+6-5/4*2=30     (c) 30*6/5-4+2=32     (d) 30/6*5+4-2=40

44. Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 9*7 = 32, 13*7=120, 17*9=208, then 19*11=?

(a) 150                        (b) 180                                    (c) 210                        (d) 240

Part – B

Subject – General Awareness

45. As announced by the Finance Minister in his budget speech on 28/2/2011, the income tax exemption limit for individuals other than senior citizens and women has been raised to

(a) Rs. 1,80,000          (b) Rs. 1,90,000          (c) Rs. 2,00,000          (d) Rs. 2,50,000

46. When there is an official change in the exchange rate of domestic currency, then it is called

(a) Appreciation         (b) Depreciation         (c) Revaluation           (d) Deflation

47. Inflation redistributes income and wealth in favour of

(a) Pensioners                         (b) Poor                       (c) middle class          (d) Rich

48. The fringe benefit tax was introduced in the budget of

(a) 2003-04                 (b) 2004-05                 (c) 2005-06                 (d) 2006-07

49. In the Budget estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of Rs. 400 crore has been made to bring in a green revolution in the East in the cropping system of

(a) Wheat                    (b) Rice                       (c) Jowar                     (d) Pulses

50. Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian Parliament to the World Parliamentary systems?

(a) Question hour       (b) Zero hour              (c) Resolutions           (d) Presidential speech

51. The Judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of

(a) 60 years                 (b) 65 years                 (c) 62 years                 (d) 58 years

52. Judicial review in the Indian Constitution is based on

(a) Rule of Law                                              (b) Due process of Law

(c) Procedure established by Law                  (d) Precedents and Conventions

53. The Drafting of the Constitution was completed on

(a) 26th January 1950                                      (b) 26th December 1949

(c) 26th November 1949                                 (d) 30th November 1949

54. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru                              (b) Sardar Patel

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad                                  (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

55. The call of “Back to the Vedas” was given by

(a) Swami Vivekananda                                 (b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(c) Aurobindo Ghosh                                      (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

56. Simon Commission was boycotted by the nationalist leaders of India because

(a) They felt that it was only an eyewash

(b) All the members of the Commission were English

(c) The members of the Commission were biased against India

(d) It did not meet the demands of the Indians

57. Who among the following British persons admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?

(a) Lord Dalhousie                                         (b) Lord Canning

(c) Lord Ellenborough                                    (d) Disraeli

58. The Greek ambassador sent Chandragupta Maurya’s court was

(a) Kautilya                (b) Seleucus Nicator   (c) Megasthenes         (d) Justin

59. Identify the European power from whom Shivaji obtained cannons and ammunition.

(a) The French            (b) The Portuguese     (c) The Dutch             (d) The English

60. The Konkan Railway connects

(a) Goa – Mangalore                                      (b) Roha – Mangalore

(c) Kanykumari – Mangalore                                     (d) Kanyakumari – Mumbai

61. Bark of this tree is used as a condiment –

(a) Cinnamon              (b) Clove                     (c) Neem                     (d) Palm

62. How much of the Earth’s land surface is desert?

(a) 1/10th (b) 1/5th (c) 1/3rd (d) 1/6th

63. Which of the following is called the ‘shrimp capital of India’?

(a) Mangalore                         (b) Nagapatnam          (c) Kochi                     (d) Nellore

64. River Indus originates from

(a) Hundukush range (b) Himalayan range (c) Karakoram range              (d) Kailash range

65. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is

(a) Stratosphere          (b) Thermosphere       (c) Troposphere          (d) Mesosphere

66. The first computer made available for commercial use was

(a) MANIAC               (b) ENIAC                  (c) UNIVAC               (d) EDSAC

67. A communication network which is used by large organizations over regional, national or global area is called

(a) LAN                      (b) WAN                     (c) MAN                     (d) VAN

68. The atmospheric air is held to the Earth by

(a) Gravity                  (b) winds                     (c) clouds                    (d) rotation of the Earth

69. The function of ball bearings in a wheel is

(a) To increase friction

(b) To convert kinetic friction into rolling friction

(c) To convert static friction into kinetic friction

(d) Just for convenience

70. ‘Shock-sbsorbers’ are usually made of steel as it

(a) Is not brittle                                              (b) Has lower elasticity

(c) Has higher elasticity                                 (d) Has no ductile property

71. The time period of pendulum when taken to the Moon would

(a) Remain the same                                      (b) decrease

(c) Become zero                                             (d) increase

72. Who was the architect of North and South Blocks of the Central Secretariat in Delhi?

(a) Sir Edward Lut;yens                                 (b) Herbert Baker

(c) Robert Tor Russell                                    (d) Antonin Raymond

73. Saliva helps in the digestion of

(a) Fats                        (b) Starch                    (c) Proteins                 (d) Vitamins

74. The longest bone in the human body is

(a) Ulna                       (b) Humerus               (c) Femur                    (d) Tibia

75. Red data book gieves information about species which are

(a) Extinct                   (b) endangered            (c) dangerous              (d) rare

76. Which of the following is the smallest bird?

(a) Pigeon                   (b) Parrot                    (c) Humming bird      (d) House sparrow

77. White lung disease is prevalent among the workers of

(a) Paper industry       (b) Cement industry   (c) Cotton industry     (d) Pesticide industry

78. Iodoform is used as an

(a) Antipyretic            (b) analgesic               (c) antiseptic               (d) anaesthetic

79. An artificial ecosystem is represented by

(a) Pisciculture           (b) agricultural land   (c) zoo                         (d) aquarium

80. Which of the following could be used as fuel in propellant or rockets?

(a) Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen        (b) Liquid Oxygen + Liquid Argon

(c) Liquid Nitrogen + Liquid Oxygen            (d) Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Oxygen

81. The addition of gypsum to Portland cement helps in

(a) Increasing the strength of cement                        (b) rapid setting cement

(c) Preventing rapid setting cement               (d) reduction in the cost of cement

82. The world’s only floating national park is situated in

(a) Manipur                (b) Kuala Lumpur       (c) Bilaspur                 (d) Dispur

83. According to the latest ‘Education Development Index’ based on a series of surveys conducted by the National University of Education, Planning and Administration and released in February, 2011, the state with the highest Development Index is

(a) Tamil Nadu           (b) Kerala                   (c) Punjab                   (d) Gujarat

84. Indian Army’s Operation ‘Saiyam’ was related to

(a) Kashmir                                                    (b) Indo-China Border in the Central Region

(c) North-East                                                             (d) Indo-Pak Border in Punjab and Rajasthan

85. The constituents of automobile exhaust that can cause cancer is/ are


(a) Oxides of nitrogen                                    (b) Carbon monoxide

(c) Polycyclic hydrocarbons                          (d) Lead

86. The optimum dissolved oxygen level (in mg/litre ) required for survival of aquatic organisms is

(a) 4-6                         (b) 2-4                         (c) 8-10                       (d) 12-16

87. Which of the following books has been written by Atiq Rahimi?

(a) Earth and Ashes    (b) This Savage Rite   (c) The Red Devil       (d) Witness the Night

88. Who is the recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award 2010 in Hindi Literature category?

(a) Uday Prakash        (b) Laxman Dubey     (c) Nanjil Nandan       (d) Mangat Badal

89. The 2010 FIFA World Cup Final was held at

(a) Paris                      (b) Berlin                    (c) Johannesburg        (d) London

90. Who of the following received Sangeet Natak Akademi’s Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar for 2009 in ‘Hindustani Vocal Music’?

(a) Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar

(b) Ragini Chander Shekar

(c) Abanti Chakravorty and Sukracharya Rabha

(d) K. Nellai Manikandan

91. Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with Uttar Pradesh?

(a) Veedhi                   (b) Thora                     (c) Tamasha                (d) Rauf

92. The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which has moved Japan’s main island by a few feet and has caused the Earth’s axis to wobble is expected to lead to the shortening of the day by

(a) 1.6 microseconds (b) 2.3 microseconds (c) 3.1 microseconds (d) 3.4 microseconds

93. The ‘Project Snow Leopard’ to conserve the endangered species, Launched by the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests covers the states of

(a) Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh only

(b) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand only

(c) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Arunachal Pradesh only

(d) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim

94. In the Railway Budget for 2011-12, an outlay of Rs. 57,630 crore has been announced for adding new lines with length of

(a) 1000 km                (b) 1200 km                (c) 1300 km                (d) 1500 km

Part – C

Subject – Numerical Aptitude

95. If x*y = (x + y)2 (y – 1), then the value of 5*4 is

(a) 192                        (b) 182                                    (c) 180                        (d) 172

96. (0.05)2+ (0.41)2+ (0.073)2/ (0.005)2+ (0.041)2+ (0.0073)2 is

(a) 10                          (b) 100                                    (c) 1000                      (d) None of these

97. If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each number separately, the products so obtained are 247 and 114. The sum of the numbers is

(a) 19                          (b) 20                          (c) 21                          (d) 23

98. Find a number, one-seventh of which exceeds its eleventh part by 100.

(a) 1925                      (b) 1825                      (c) 1540                      (d) 1340

99. The remainder when 321 is divided by 5 is

(a) 1                            (b) 2                            (c) 3                            (d) 4

100. The last digit of (1001)2008 +1002 is

(a) 0                            (b) 3                            (c) 4                            (d) 6

101. A can do a work in 12 days. When he had worked for 3 days, B joined him. If they complete the work in 3 more days, in how many days can B alone finish the work?

(a) 6 days                    (b) 12 days                  (c) 4 days                    (d) 8 days

102. The L.C.M. of three different numbers is 120. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F.?

(a) 8                            (b) 12                          (c) 24                          (d) 35

103. A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as remainder. This number when divided by 7 will have the remainder as

(a) 4                            (b) 3                            (c) 2                            (d) 5

104. In an examination a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempts correctly is

(a) 35                          (b) 40                          (c) 42                          (d) 46

105. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 54 seconds respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 10:15:00 AM, then at what time will they again change simultaneously?

(a) 10:16:54 AM         (b) 10:18:36 AM        (c) 10:17:02 AM         (d) 10:22:12 AM

106. A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of area 81 cm2. If the same wire is bent in the form of a semicircle, the radius (in cm) of the semicircle is (Take = 22/7)

(a) 16                          (b) 14                          (c) 10                          (d) 7

107. The volume (in m3) of rain water that can be collected from 105 hectares of ground in a rainfall of 5 cm is

(a) 75                          (b) 750                                    (c) 7500                      (d) 75000

108. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water (in litres) will fall into the sea in a minute?

(a) 4,00,000                (b) 40,00,000              (c) 40,000                   (d) 4,000

109. A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A can do it in 8 days. A, B and C together can complete it in

(a) 4 days                    (b) 5 days                    (c) 6 days                    (d) 7 days

110. X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less than Y. Then the time in which they can complete the work together is

(a) 15 days                  (b) 10 days                  (c) 7 ½ days                (d) 5 days

111. What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 20% and 15%?

(a) 35%                       (b) 32%                       (c) 34%                       (d) 30%

112. In a business partnership among A, B, C and D, the profit is shared as follows:

A’s share/B’s share = B’s share/ C’s share = C’s share/D’s share = 1/3.

If the total profit is Rs. 4,00,000, the share of C is

(a) Rs. 1,12,500          (b) Rs. 1,37,500          (c) Rs. 90,000             (d) Rs. 2,70,000

113. A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Then the radius of the wheel (in cm) is (Take  = 22/7)

(a) 70                          (b) 35                          (c) 17.5                       (d) 140

114. The perimeter of a triangle is 40 cm and its area is 60 cm2. If the largest side measures 17 cm, then the length (in cm) of the smallest side of the triangle is

(a) 4                            (b) 6                            (c) 8                            (d) 15

115. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% to his customers and still gains 20. Find the marked price of the article which costs Rs. 450.

(a) Rs. 600                  (b) Rs 540                   (c) Rs. 660                  (d) Rs. 580

116. The ratio of weekly incomes of A and B is 9:7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4:3. If each saves Rs. 200 per weak, then the sum of their weekly incomes is

(a) Rs. 3,600               (b) Rs. 4,200               (c) Rs. 4,800               (d) Rs. 5,600

117. Among three numbers, the first is twice the second and thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 49.5, then the difference between the first and the third number is

(a) 54                          (b) 28                          (c) 39.5                       (d) 41.5

118. The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was discovered that two entries were wrongly entered as 82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31. Find the correct mean.

(a) 36.12                     (b) 30.66                     (c) 29.28                     (d) 38.21

119. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the cn is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. Litres of liquid A contained by the can initially was

(a) 10                          (b) 20                          (c) 21                          (d) 25

120. What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17:24 so that it becomes equal to 1:2?

(a) 5 is subtracted       (b) 10 is added            (c) 7 is added              (d) 10 is subtracted

121. Krishna purchased a number of articles at Rs. 10 for each and the same number for Rs. 14 each. He mixed them together and sold them for Rs. 13 each. Then his gain or loss percent is

(a) Loss 81/3%           (b) Gain 82/3%           (c) Loss 82/3%           (d) Gain 81/3%

122. A trader bought two horses for Rs. 19,500. He sold one at a loss of 20% and the other at a profit of 15%. If the selling price of each horse is the same, then their cost prices are respectively

(a) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 9,500                          (b) Rs. 11,500 and Rs. 8,000

(c) Rs. 12,000 and Rs. 7,500                          (d) Rs. 10,500 and Rs. 9,000

123. If the selling price of 10 articles is equals to the cost price of 11 articles, then the gain percent is

(a) 10                          (b) 11                          (c) 15                          (d) 25

124. While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives a discount of 5%. If he gives a discount of 6%, he earns Rs. 15 less as profit. What is the marked price of the watch?

(a) Rs. 1,250               (b) Rs. 1,400               (c) Rs. 1,500               (d) Rs. 750

125. If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by how much percent a householder must reduce his consumption of sugar so as not to increase his expenditure?

(a) 10                          (b) 20                          (c) 18                          (d) 25

126. If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80% of B. What percentage of A is B?

(a) 30%                       (b) 40%                       (c) 70%                       (d) 75%

127. A man can row 6 km/h in still water. If the speed of the current is 2 km/h, it takes 3 hours more in upstream than in the downstream for the same distance. The distance is

(a) 30 km                    (b) 24 km                    (c) 20 km                    (d) 32 km

128. The cost price of an article is 40% of the selling price. What percent of the cost price is the selling price?

(a) 140%                     (b) 200%                     (c) 220%                     (d) 250%

129. If 90% of A = 30% of B and B = 2x% of A, then the value of x is

(a) 450                        (b) 400                                    (c) 300                        (d) 150

130. When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a man could buy 1 kg more for Rs. 270. Then the original price of sugar per kg is

(a) Rs. 25                    (b) Rs. 30                    (c) Rs. 27                    (d) Rs. 32

131. A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to four times itself?

(a) 12 years                 (b) 13 years                 (c) 8 years                   (d) 16 years

132. The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is one-fourth of the sum. The rate of interest pre annum is

(a) 5%                         (b) 6%                         (c) 4%                         (d) 8%

133. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 10,000 for 2 years is Rs. 25. The rate of interest per annum is

(a) 5%                         (b) 7%                         (c) 10%                       (d) 12%

134. A student goes to school at the rate of 2 ½ km/h and reaches 6 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 3 km/h, he is 10 minutes early. The distance (in km) between the school and his house is

(a) 5                            (b) 4                            (c) 3                            (d) 1

Part – D

Subject – English Comprehension

Directions: In question no. 135 to 139, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

135. The _______were arrested for illegally hunting the bears.

(a) Poachers                (b) rangers                  (c) soldiers                  (d) villagers

136. If you had followed the rules, you _________disqualified.

(a) will not be                         (b) would not be         (c) will not have been             (d) would not have been

137. The housewife __________the cakes burning, and ran to switch off the oven.

(a) Smell                     (b) smells                    (c) smelt                     (d) smelling

138. ___________an old legend, king Shirham lived in India.

(a) In the event of       (b) Due to                   (c) according to          (d) in reference to

139. _________you leave now, you will be late.

(a) Until                      (b) till                         (c) unless                    (d) although

Directions: In questions no. 140 to 144, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

140. Do you know that it was I who has done this piece of beautiful work? No error.

(A)                                          (B)                                           (C)                               (D)

141. The future of food companies seems quite secure owed to ever-growing demand. No error.

(A)                                          (B)                                           (C)                               (D)

142. The company has ordered some new equipments No error.

(A)                              (B)                                           (C)                                           (D)

143. The vaccine when hit the Indian market is dogged by controversy. No error.

(A)                              (B)                                           (C)                                           (D)

144. His son is working very hardly. No error.

(A)                              (B)                                                       (C)                                           (D)

Directions: In questions no. 145 to 149, four alternatives are given for the meaning of the given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

145. To take to one’s heels

(a) To walk slowly     (b) to run away           (c) to march forward (d) to hop and jump

146. To bite the dust

(a) Eat voraciously                                         (b) have nothing to eat

(c) eat roots                                                    (d) none of the above

147. A bolt from the blue

(a) A delayed event                                        (b) an inexplicable event

(c) An unexpected event                                (d) an unpleasant event

148. Cold comfort

(a) Absurdity                                                  (b) deception

(c) Slight satisfaction                                                 (d) foolish proposal

149. To be all at sea

(a) A family                                                    (b) lost and confused

(c) in the middle of the ocean                                    (d) a string of islands

Directions: In questions no. 150 to 154, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

150. A CCRUE

(a) Accumulate           (b) Accommodate       (c) Grow                     (d) suffice


(a) Talkative               (b) slow                       (c) content                  (d) unclear


(a) Imaginative           (b) accusative                         (c) spiteful                  (d) aggressive


(a) Selfish                   (b) active                    (c) unfavourable         (d) inactive


(a) Cordial                  (b) unselfish               (c) careful                   (d) specific

Directions: In questions no. 155 to 159, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.


(a) Forgetful               (b) destructive            (c) careless                 (d) flagrant


(a) Natural                  (b) plastic                   (c) cosmetic                (d) apathetic


(a) Disagreement        (b) welcome                (c) disrespect              (d) conformity


(a) Employment         (b) indisposition         (c) strength                 (d) weakness


(a) Useful                    (b) impractical            (c) uneven                   (d) important

Directions: In questions no. 160 to 164, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

160. To look at someone in an angry or threatening way

(a) Glower                  (b) gnaw                      (c) gnash                     (d) grind

161. A post with little work but high salary

(a) Director                 (b) Trustee                  (c) Sinecure                (d) ombudsman

162. Something that causes death

(a) Dangerous                         (b) fatal                       (c) brutal                     (d) horrible

163. A person who writes decoratively

(a) Calligrapher          (b) collier                    (c) choreographer       (d) cartographer

164. Pertaining to cattle

(a) Canine                   (b) feline                     (c) bovine                   (d) verminous

Directions: In questions no. 165 to 169, a sentence or underlined part thereof is given which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at (A), (B) and (C) below, which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D). Blacken the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

165. He both won a medal and a scholarship.

(a) He won a medal and a scholarship both.

(b) Both he won a medal and a scholarship both.

(c) He won both a medal and a scholarship.

(d) No improvement

166. He has for good left India.

(a) He has left for good India.

(b) He has left India for good.

(c) Good he has left India.

(d) No improvement

167. We are credibly informed that the murderer has given himself up.

(a) We are informed that the murderer has credibly given himself up.

(b) We are informed that the murderer has given credibly himself up.

(c) We are informed that credibly the murderer has given up himself.

(d) No improvement

168. We generally select one of the most intelligent students of the school for this award.

(a) One of the most intelligent students of the school

(b) One of the intelligent most students of the school

(c) One of the intelligent most students of the school

(d) No improvement

169. My friend lives in a nearby street whose name I have forgotten.

(a) The name of which                                   (b) which name

(c) Of which name                                          (d) No improvement

Directions: In questions no. 170 to 174, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

170. (a) harassment    (b) embarrassment     (c) fulfillment                         (d) denoument

171. (a) agnostik         (b) accomplice            (c) advercity               (d) acrimonous

172. (a) Dysentery      (b) momentary            (c) cemetery               (d) commentary

173. (a) ebullient        (b) jubilant                  (c) imminent               (d) tolerant

174. (a) malaign         (b) arraign                   (c) asigne                    (d) degine

Directions: In the following passage (questions no. 175 to 184), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Passage (Q. Nos. 175-184)

The Solar System has been a complicated wonder for the astronomers. This is a 175 to which we may never have the exact answer. Man has wondered 176 the age of the Earth 177 ancient times. There were all kinds of 178 that seemed to have the 179. But man could not begin to 180 about the question scientifically until about 400 years 181.

When it was proved that the 182 revolved round the Sun and the Earth was a 183 of our solar system, then scientists knew where to 184.

175. (a) problem         (b) question                (c) matter                    (d) query

176. (a) around           (b) out                         (c) about                     (d) on

177. (a) since              (b) during                    (c) around                   (d) from

178. (a) ideas              (b) opinions                (c) stories                    (d) matters

179. (a) solution         (b) novel                     (c) book                      (d) answer

180. (a) read               (b) think                      (c) open                       (d) guess

181. (a) now                (b) time                       (c) then                       (d) ago

182. (a) moon             (b) time                       (c) earth                      (d) mars

183. (a) part                (b) division                 (c) opening                 (d) centre

184. (a) end                 (b) begin                     (c) think                      (d) work

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  1. Sir/Madam can u please provide me the answer keys for these (SSC CGL 2011) exam in my e-mail? thank You

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