Sample Exam Paper 2 – AIEEE Exam 2003


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SAMPLE EXAM PAPER 2

Subject – Physics and chemistry

AIEEE Exam 2003

1. A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular frequency is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is:

(a) L/2                         (b) 2L                          (c) L/4                                     (d) 4L

2. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength?

(A) a–rays                  (b) g–rays                    (c) b–rays                   (d) x-rays

3. When U238 nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting an alpha particle having a speed u, the recoil speed of the residual nucleus is:

(A) -4u/238                 (b) 4u/238                   (c) -4u/234                  (d) 4u/234

4. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other due to gravitation force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision is:

(a) 2.5R                       (b) 1.5 R                      (c) 7.5 R                      (d) 4.5 R

5. A particle of mass M and change Q moving with velocity v describes a circular path of radius R when subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field when the particle completes one full circle is:

(a) Zero                       (b) BQ 2pR                 (c) BQv 2pR               (d) (Mv2/R) 2 pR

6. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm, and the emf of its stand and cell is E volt. It is employed to measure the emf of a battery whose internal resistance is 0.5. If the balance point is obtained at l = 30 cm from the positive end, the emf of the battery is:

(a) 30E/100-0.5

(b) 30E/100

(c) 30E/100.5

(d) 30(E-0.5i)/100 where I is the current in potentiometer wire

7. The difference in the variation of resistance with temperature in a metal and a semiconductor arises essentially due to the difference in the:

(a) Type of bonding

(b) Crystal structure

(c) Variation of scattering mechanism with temperature

(d) Variation of the number of charge carriers with temperature

8. A car moving with a speed of 50 km/hr, can be stopped by brakes after at least 6 m. If the minimum stopping distance is:

(a) 6 m                        (b) 12 m                      (c) 18 m                      (d) 24 m

9. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building throws a ball with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 30o with the horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball be at the height of 10 m from the ground? [g = 10 m/s2, sin 30o = ½, cos 30o = Ö3/2]

(a) 8.66 m                   (b) 5.20 m                   (c) 4.33 m                   (d) 2.60 m

10. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.8 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A, the value of the required shunt is:

(a) 0.09W                    (b) 0.03W                    (c) 0.3W                      (d) 0.9W

11. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are:

(a) Speed and (m0e0)-1/2                                 (b) Torque and work

(c) Momentum and Planck’s constant                       (d) Stress and Young’s modulus

12. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is 1 and 2, the electric charge inside the surface will be:

(a) (f1+f2) e0                     (b) (f2-f1) e0            (c) (f1+f2) e0             (d) (f2-f1) e0

13. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then the coefficient of friction is:

(a) 0.01                       (b) 0.02                       (c) 0.03                       (d) 0.06

14. Consider the following two statements:

A. Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero.

B. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero.

Then:

(a) A implies B and B implies A

(b) A does not imply B and B does not imply A

(c) A implies B but B does not imply A

(d) A does not imply B but B implies A

15. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon:

(a) The currents in the two coils

(b) The rates at which currents are changing in the two coils

(c) Relative position and orientation of the two coils

(d) The materials of the wires of the coils

16. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block is:

(a) Pm/M + m             (b) Pm/M-m               (c) PM/M + m            (d) P

17. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale reading is:

(a) Both the scales read M/2 kg

(b) Both the scales read M kg each

(c) The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero

(d) The reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg

18. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is:

(a) 0.1 J                       (b) 0.2 J                       (c) 10 J                                    (d) 20 J

19. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of earth is 11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of 45o with the vertical, the escape velocity will be:

(a) 11/ Ö2 m/s             (b) 11/ Ö2 km/s           (c) 22 km/s                 (d) 11 km/s

20. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released so that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is increased by m, the time period becomes 5T/3. Then the ratio of m/M is:

(A) 5/3                                    (b) 16/9                       (c) 25/9                       (d) 3/5

21. “Heat cannot be itself flow from a body at higher temperature” is a statement or consequence of:

(a) First law of thermodynamics                   (b) Second law of thermodynamics

(c) Conservation of momentum                     (d) Conservation of mass

22. Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring constants k1 and K2, respectively. If the maximum velocities, during oscillations are equal, the ratio of amplitudes of A and B is:

(a) k1/k2                     (b) Ök1/k2                   (c) k1/k2                     (d) Ök2/k1

23. The length of a simple pendulum execution simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%. The percentage increase in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is:

(a) 10.5%                    (b) 11%                       (c) 21%                       (d) 42%

24. The displacement Y of a wave traveling in the x-direction is given by

Y = 10-4 sin {600t-2x+p/3} metre,

Where x is expressed in metres and t in seconds. The speed of the wave-motion, in ms-1 is:

(a) 200                        (b) 300                                    (c) 600                        (d) 1200

25. When the current changes from +2 A to -2 A in 0.05 second, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of self-induction of the coil is:

(a) 0.1 H                      (b) 0.2 H                     (c) 0.4 H                      (d) 0.8 H

26. In an oscillation LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor when the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields is:

(a) Q                           (b) Q/2                                    (c) Q/Ö3                                  (d) Q/Ö2

27. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to:

(a) Increase the secondary voltage

(b) Reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents

(c) Make it light weight

(d) Make it robust and strong

28. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay constant (per minute) is:

(a) 0.8 ln 2                  (b) 0.4 ln 2                  (c) 0.2 ln 2                  (d) 0.1 ln 2

29. A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a sequence : a, a, b-, b-, a, a, a, a, b-, b-, a, b+, b+, a. The Z of the resulting nucleus is:

(a) 74                          (b) 76                          (c) 78                          (d) 82

30. two identical, photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocities of the photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out are respectively v1 and v2, then:

(a) v1-v2 = [2h/m (f1-f2)] 1/2                          (b) v12-v22 = 2h/m (f1-f2)

(c) V1+v2 = [2h/m (f1+f2)] 1/2                       (d) v12+v22 = 2h/m (f1-f2)

31. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substance during their decay?

(a) Electrons               (b) Protons                  (c) Neutrinos              (d) Helium nuclei

32. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduces between the plates of a capacitor. The capacitance of the capacitor:

(a) Increases                                                   (b) Decreases

(c) Remains unchanged                                  (d) Becomes infinite

33. The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 4 (cos pt + sin pt). The amplitude of the particle is:

(a) 8                            (b) -4                           (c) 4                            (d) 4Ö2

34. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P at a distance R/2 from the centre of the shell is:

(a) 2Q/4pe0R+q/4 4pe0R                               (b) 2Q/4 4pe0R

(c) (q+Q)/4pe0R*2/R                                     (d) 2Q/4pe0R-2q/4pe0R

35. The work done in placing a charge of 8*10-18 coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100 micro-farad is:

(a) 32*10-32 joule      (b) 16*10-32 joule      (c) 3.1*10-26 joule     (d) 4*10-10 joule

36. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = at3 and y = bt3. The speed of the particle at time t is given by:

(a) Öa2+b2 (b) 3tÖa2+b2 (c) 3t2Öa2+b2 (d) t2Öa2+b2

37. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio Cp/Cv for the gas is:

(a) 3/1                         (b) 4/3                         (c) 2                            (d) 5/3

38. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?

(a) Volume                 (b) Temperature         (c) Pressure                 (d) Work

39. A Carnot engine takes 3*106 cal of heat sink at 27oC. The work done by the engine is:

(a) zero                       (b) 4.2*106 J               (c) 8.4*106 J               (d) 16.8*106 J

40. A spring of spring constant 5*103 N/m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position. Then the work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is:

6.25 N-m                     (b) 12.50 N-m             (c) 18.75 N-m             (d) 25.00 N-m

41. A metal wire of linear mass density of 9.8 g/m is stretched with a tension of 10 kg-wt between two rigid supports 1 metre apart. The wire passes at its middle point between the poses of a permanent magnet and it vibrates in resonance when carrying an alternating current of frequency n. The frequency n f the alternating source is:

(a) 25 Hz                     (b) 50 Hz                     (c) 100 Hz                   (d) 200 Hz

42. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was:

(a) (256+5) Hz            (b) (256+2) Hz            (c) (256-2) Hz             (d) (256-5) Hz

43. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy (K.E.) and total energy (T.E.) are measured as function of displacement x. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) P.E. is maximum when x = 0                    (b) K.E. is maximum when x = 0

(c) T.E. is zero            when x = 0                             (d) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum

44. In the nuclear fusion reaction,

21H+31H            42H+n

Given that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is – 7.7 *10-4 J, the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly [Boltzamann’s constant k = 1.38 *10-23 J/K]:

(a) 109 K                     (b) 107 K                     (C) 105 K                    (d) 103 K

45. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?

(a) 13355Cs             (b) 4018Ar                    (c) 168O                       (d) 147N

46. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium (21D) are slightly different from that of hydrogen spectrum, because:

(a) Masses of the two nuclei are different

(b) size of the two nuclei are different

(c) attraction between the electron and the nucleus is different in the two cases

(d) nuclear forces are different in the two cases

47. In the middle of the depletion layer of reverse biased p-n junction, the:

(a) Electric field is maximum                  (b) Potential is zero

(c) Electric field is zero                           (d) Potential is maximum

48. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li2+ is:

(a) 13.6 eV            (b) 122.4 eV                (c) 30.6 eV                  (d) 3.4 eV

49. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance moved by the body in time t is proportional to:

(a) t1/4 (b) t1/2 (c) t3/2 (d) t3/4

50. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5*104 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 10 m/s2. Then the initial thrust of the blast is:

(a) 7.0*105N         (b) 1.75*105N             (c) 3.5*105N               (d) 14.0*105N

51. To demonstrate the phenomenon interference we require two sources which emit radiation of:

(a) The same frequency and having a definite phase relationship

(b) Different wavelength

(c) Nearly the same frequency

(d) The same frequency

52. A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across a 110 volt mains supply. The power consumed will be:

(a) 500 watt          (b) 1000 watt              (c) 750 watt                (d) 250 watt

53. The image formed by an objective of a compound microseope is:

(a) Real and enlarged                               (b) Virtual and enlarged

(c) Virtual and diminished                       (d) Real and diminished

54. The earth radiates in the infra-red region of the spectrum. The spectrum is correctly given by:

(a) Stefan’s law of radiation                    (b) Wien’s law

(c) Rayleigh Jeans law                             (d) Planck’s law of radiation

55. To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of:

(a) 1200 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 900

56. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to (Dq)n , where Dq is the difference of the temperature of the body and the surroundings, and n is equal to:

(a) Three               (b) Four                       (c) One                        (d) Two

57. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be:

(a) 300%               (b) 50%                       (c) 100%                     (d) 200%

58. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the following inter-orbits jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen?

(a) 2®5                (b) 5®2                      (c) 4®1                      (d) 3®2

59. The de Broglie wavelength o9f a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per second is approximately:

(Planck’s constant, H = 6.63*10-34 Js)

(a) 10-31 metre      (b) 10-25 metre                        (c) 10-33 metre            (d) 10-16 metre

60. The orbital angular momentum for an electron revolving in an orbit is given by    . This momentum for an s-electron will be given by:

(a) Zero                 (b) Ö2*h/2p                 (c) +1/2*h/2p              (d) h/2p

61. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g? [Atomic masses: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]

(a) 5.14*1021 (b) 1.71*1021 (c) 2.57*1021 (d) 1.28*1021

62. Class is a:

(a) Gel                                                       (b) Polymeric mixture

(c) Micro-crystalline solid                                   (d) Super-cooled liquid

63. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution

(b) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and JCO ions we get a precipitate of K2Ca(CO3)2

(c) Manganese salts give a violet borax-bead test in the reducing flame

(d) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI, ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl

64. According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their:

(a) Atomic numbers                                 (b) Nuclear neutron-proton number ratios

(c) Atomic masses                                                (d) Nuclear masses

65. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite:

(a) Has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers

(b) Has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interpolate bonds

(c) Is a non-crystalline substance

(d) Is an allotropic form of diamond

66. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is:

(a) 4-methylisopropyl ketone

(b) 3-methyl-2-butanone

(c) Isopropylmethl ketone

(d) 2-methyl-3-butanone

67. When CH2==CH—COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the compound obtained will be:

(a) CH3—CH2—CH2OH                                     (b) CH3—CH2—CHO

(c) CH3—CH2—COOH                                       (d) CH2==CH—CH2OH

68. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas, between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels:

(a) In a straight line path                                      (b) With an accelerated velocity

(c) In a circular path                                             (d) In a wavy path

69. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is a characteristic of element of:

(a) f-block                                                             (b) Radioactive series

(c) High atomic masses                                        (d) d-block

70. The general formula CnH2nO2 could be for open chain:

(a) Diols                                                                (b) Dialdehydes

(c) Diketones                                                        (d) Carboxylic acids

71. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to:

(a) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers

(b) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols

(c) Dipolar character of ethers

(d) Alcohols having resonance structures

72. Which one of the following processes will produce hard water?

(a) Saturation of water with CaSO4 (b) Addition of Na2SO4

(c) Saturation of water with CaCO3 (d) Saturation of water with MgCO3

73. Which one of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule?

(a) SH2 (b) NH3 (c) OH2 (d) SO2

74. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?

(a) NO2 and O3 (b) SiF4 and CO2

(c) SiF4 and NO2 (d) NO2 and CO2

75. Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species? (At. numbers Cs-55, Br-35)

(a) Be, Al3+, Cl (b) Ca2+, Cs+, Br

(c) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (d) N3-, F, Na+

76. In the anion HCOO the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?

(a) The anion HCOO has two resonating structures

(b) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the acid molecule

(c) Electronic orbits of carbon atom are hybridised

(d) The C== O bond is weaker than the C—O bond

77. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is:

(a) BF3, PCl3 (b) PF5, IF5

(c) CF4, SF4 (d) XeF2, CO2

78. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy?

(a) Mn                   (b) Fe                                      (c) V                            (d) Cr

79.   Consider the reaction equilibrium:

2SO2(g) + O2(g) == 2SO3(g); Ho = – 198 kj On the basis of Le Chatelier’s principle, the condition favourable for the forward reaction is:

(a)   Lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure

(b)  Any value of temperature and pressure

(c)   Lowering of temperature as well as pressure

(d)  Increasing temperature as well as pressure

80. What volume of hydrogen has, at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the feduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?

(a) 44.8 L              (b) 22.4 L                                (c) 89.6 L                    (d) 67.2 L

81. For the reaction equilibrium,

N2O4(g) == 2NO(g)

the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 at equilibrium are 4.8*10-2 and 1.2*10-2 mol L-1 respectively. The value of Kc for the reaction is:

(a) 3*10-3 mol L-1 (b) 3*103 mol L-1

(c) 3.3*102 mol L-1 (d) 3*10-1 mol L-1

82. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 1.0*10-5 mol L-1. Its solubility product number will be:

(a) 4*10-15 (b) 1*10-10 (c) 1*10-15 (d) 1*10-10

83. When during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3, 9650 coulombs of charge pass through the electroplating path, the mass of silver deposited on the cathode will be:

(a) 21.6 g              (b) 108 g                                 (c) 1.08 g                    (d) 10.8 g

84. For the redox reaction

Zn(s)+ Cu2+ (0.1M)—- Zn2+ (1M) + Cu(s)

taking place ina cell, Eocell is 1.10 volt.

Ecell for the cell will be:

(2.303RT/F=0.0591)

(a) 1.07 V              (b) 0.82 V                               (c) 2.14 V                    (d) 1.80 V

85. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX, the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking Kf for water as 1.85, the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to:

(a) -0.260o C         (b) +0.480o C                          (c) -0.480o C               (d) -0.360o C

86. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by rate = k[A]n [B]m. On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as:

(a) 1/2m+n (b) 2(n-m) (c) (m+n)                    (d) (n-m)

87. 25 mL of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a titre value of 35 mL. The molarity of barium hydroxide4 solution was:

(a) 0.14                       (b) 0.28                       (c) 0.35                       (d) 0.07

88. The correct relationship between fee energy change in a reaction and the corresponding equilibrium constant Kc is:

(a) –DG = RT in Kc (b) DGo = RT in Kc (c) –DGo = RT in Kc (d) DG = RT in Kc

89. If at 398 K the bond energies of C-H, C-C, C==C and H-H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol-1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction

H2C==CH2(g) + H2(g) ® H3C-CH3(g)

At 298 K will be:

(a) + 125 kJ                 (b) -125 kJ                  (c) +250 kJ                  (d) -250 kJ

90. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon the:

(a) Nature of intermediate reaction steps

(b) Difference in initial or final temperatures of involved substances

(c) Physical state of reactants and products

(d) Use of different reactants for the same product

91. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because:

(a) The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material

(b) Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature

(c) Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space

(d) Boiling point of water involved in cooking I increased

92. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, th:

(a) Free energy of mixing is zero

(b) Free energy as well as the entropy of mixing re each zero

(c) Enthalpy of mixing is zero

(d) Entropy of mixing is zero

93. for the reaction system:

2NO (g) + O2 (g) 2NO2 (g)

Volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order with respect to O2 and second order with respect to NO2, the rate reaction will:

(a) Increase to eight times of its initial value

(b) Increase to four times of its initial value

(c) Diminish to one-fourth of its initial value

(d) Diminish to one-eighth of its initial value

94. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard emf of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 25oC. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25oC will be:

(a) 10                          (b) 1*1010 (c) 1*10-10 (d) 29.5*10-2

95. In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and P and in which only pressure-volume work is being done, the change in Gibbs free energy (dG) and change in entropy (dS), satisfy the criteria:

(a) (dS)v, E = 0, (dG)T, p = 0                          (b) (dS)v, E = 0, (dG)T, p > 0

(c) (dS)v, E < 0, (dG)T, p < 0                          (d) (dS)v, E > 0, (dG)T, p < 0

96. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption?

(a) Adsorption is spontaneous

(b) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative

(c) Adsorption on solids is reversible

(d) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature

97. In the respect of the equation k = Ae-Ea/RT in chemical kinetics, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Ea is energy of activation                                     (b) R is Rydberg constant

(c) k is equilibrium constant                          (d) A is adsorption factor

98. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are + 0.5 V, -3.0 V ad -1.2 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals are:

(a) A > B > C              (b) C > B > A              (c) A > C > B              (d) B > C > A

99. Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity?

(a) NH3 (b) PH3 (c) H2O                       (d) H2S

100. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

(a) SO2 (b) B2O3 (c) ZnO                       (d) Na2O

101. A red solid is insoluble in water. However it becomes soluble if some KI is added to water. Heating the red solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured fumes and proplets of a metal appear on the cooler parts of the test tube. The red solid is:

(a) HgI2 (b) pb3O4 (c) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (d) HgO

102. Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open air sometimes produces a cloud of white fumes. The explanation for it is that:

(a) Strong affinity of HCl has for moisture in air results in forming of droplets of liquid solution which appears like a cloudy smoke

(b) Due to strong affinity for water, concentrated hydrochloric acid pulls moisture of air towards itself. This moisture forms droplets of water and hence the cloud

(c) Concentrated hydrochloric acid emits strongly smelling HCl gas all the time

(d) Oxygen in air reacts with the emitted HCl gas to form a cloud of chlorine gas

103. What may be expected to happen when phosphine gas is mixed with chlorine gas?

(a) PCl5 and HCl are formed and the mixture cools down

(b) PH3.Cl2 is formed with warming up

(c) The mixture only cools down

(d) PCl3 and HCl are formed and the mixture warms up

104. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. No. Fe = 26) ions is:

(a) 5                            (b) 6                            (c) 3                            (d) 4

105. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid?

(a) CrO2-4 is reduced to +3 state of Cr           (b) None of these

(c) Cr3+ and Cr2O2-7 are formed                     (d) Cr2O2-7 and H=O are formed

106. In the coordination compound, K4 [Ni (CN) 4], the oxidation state of nickel is:

(a) 0                            (b) +2                          (c) +1                          (d) -1

107. Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu (NH3)4]2+ with copper ions in the alkaline solutions but not in acidic solutions. What is the reason for it?

(a) In alkaline solutions insoluble Cu (OH)2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of any alkali

(b) Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance

(c) In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions

(d) In acidic solutions protons coordinate with ammonia molecules forming NH+4 ions and NH3 molecules are not a available

108. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3)5Cl3, gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in water. One mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 solution to yield two moles of AgCl(s). The structure of the complex is:

(a) [Co (NH3)4Cl2]Cl.NH3 (b) [Co (NH3)4Cl]Cl2.NH3

(c) [Co (NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (d) [Co (NH3)3Cl2].2NH3

109. The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La = 57) is 1.06 Ao. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71)?

(a) 1.40 Ao (b) 0.85 Ao (c) 1.60 Ao (d) 1.06 Ao

110. The radionucleide 23490 Th undergoes two successive b–decays followed by one a-decay. The atomic number and the mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are:

(a) 94 and 230             (b) 92 and 230            (c) 92 and 234             (d) 90 and 230

111. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256 g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be:

(a) 12.0 g                    (b) 16.0 g                    (c) 4.0 g                      (d) 8.0 g

112. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to:

(a) Prevent action of water and salt               (b) Prevent puncturing by under-sea rocks

(c) Keep away the sharks                               (d) Make the ship lighter

113. In curing cement plasters water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in:

(a) Hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement

(b) Converting sand into silicic acid

(c) Keeping it cool

(d) Developing interlocking needle-like crystals of hydrated silicates

114. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a) The pH of 1*10-8 M HCl is 8

(b) 96,500 coulombs of electricity when passed through a CuSO4 solution deposit 1 gram equivalent of copper at the cathode

(c) The conjugate base of H2PO-4 is HPO2-4

(d) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions

115. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH is:

(a) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH                     (b) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3

(c) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH                     (d) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2

116. Butene-1may be converted to butane by reaction with:

(a) Zn-Hg                    (b) pd/H2 (c) Zn-HCl                  (d) Sn-HCl

116. The solubilities of carbonates decrease dwn the magnesium group due to a decrease in:

(a) Inter-ionic attraction                                 (b) Entropy of solution formation

(c) Lattice energies of solids                         (d) Hydration energies of cations

117. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with concentrated H2SO4 the initiation step is:

(a) Elimination of water                                 (b) Formation of an ester

(c) Protonation of alcohol molecule              (d) Formation of carbocation

118. Which one of the fo0llowing nitrates will leave behind a metal on strong heating?

(a) Manganese nitrate                                    (b) Silver nitrate

(c) Ferric nitrate                                             (d) Copper nitrate

119. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value:

(a) Uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm

(b) Which depends on the amount of dust in air

(c) Slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm

(d) Slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm in not there

120. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:

(a) D-glucose              (b) L-glucose              (c) D-fructose                         (d) D-ribose

121. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are used. These are obtained by floating molten glass over a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The cetal used can be:

(a) Sodium                  (b) Magnesium           (c) Mercury                (d) Tin

122. The substance not likely to contain CaCo3 is:

(a) Sea shells              (b) Dolomite               (c) A marble statue     (d) Calcined gypsum

123. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of:

(a) Hydrogen bonding                                    (b) Electrostatic attractions

(c) Van der Wass’s forces                              (d) Dipole-dipole interaction

124. Bottles containing C6H5I and C6H5CH2I lost their original labels. They were labeled A and B for testing. A and B were separately taken in a test tube and boiled with NaOH solution. The end solution in each tube was made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substance B gave a yellow precipitate. Which one of the following statements is true for this experiment?

(a) B was C6H5I                                              (b) Addition of HNO3 was unnecessary

(c) A was C6H5I                                              (d) A was C6H5CH2I

125. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates:

(a) Ethanoic acid and ammonium salt           (b) Methylamine salt and ethanoic acid

(c) Ethylamine salt and methanoic acid        (d) Propanoic acid and ammonium salt

126. The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mol. If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path what would be the net change in internal energy?

(a) < 40 kJ                   (b) zero                       (c) 40 kJ                      (d) > 40 kJ

127. Nylon threads are made of:

(a) On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultraviolet light, it forms only one monochloroalkane. This alkane could be:

(a) Isopentane                         (b) Neopentane           (c) Propane                 (d) Pentane

128. Which of the following could act as a propellant for rockets?

(a) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen                         (b) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen

(c) Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen           (d) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon

129. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is projected at an angle of 45o to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of the BAL at the highest point of its flight will be:

(a) E                            (b) Zero                       (c) E/2                         (d) E/2

130. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If vA and vB are their respective velocities on reaching are ground, then

(a) vA > vB (b) Their velocities depends on their masses

(c) vB > vA (d) vA = vB

131. If a body losses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block, then how much will it penetrate more before coming to rest?

(a) 3 cm                      (b) 2 cm                      (c) 1 cm                      (d) 4 cm

132. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the satellite will:

(a) Become stationary in its orbit

(b) Move towards the earth

(c) Continue to move in its orbit with same velocity

(d) Move tangentially to the original orbit with the same velocity

133. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a:

(a) High resistance in series                           (b) Low resistance in series

(c) Low resistance in parallel                                    (d) High resistance in parallel

134. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current I is flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a current 2i is flowing, then the ratio of the magnetic fields, BA and BB produced by them will be:

(a) ½                           (b) 4                            (c) 1                            (d) 2

135. If two mirrors are kept at 60o to each other, then the number of image formed by them is:

(a) 7                            (b) 8                            (c) 5                            (d) 6

136. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into two equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P2. Then P2:P1 is

(a) 3                            (b) 4                            (c) 1                            (d) 2

137. If 13.6eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is:

(a) 6.8 eV                    (b) 0 eV                       (c) 10.2eV                   (d) 3.4 eV

138. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The ratio of fundamental frequency of tubes A and B is:

(a) 1:2                         (b) 4:1                         (c) 2:1                         (d) 1:4

139. A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/sec with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A little wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/sec. The frequency of the unknown fork is:

(a) 294 cps                  (b) 288 cps                  (c) 286 cps                  (d) 292 cps

140. On moving charge of 20 coulombs by 2 cm, 2J of work is done, rthen the potential difference between the points is:

(a) 8 V                         (b) 0.5 V                     (c) 2 V                         (d) 0.1 V

141. If an electron and a proton having same momenta enter perpendicularly to a magnetic field, then:

(a) Curved path of electron is more curved than that of proton

(b) Path of proton is more curved

(c) Curved path of electron and proton will be same (ignoring the sense of revolution)

(d) They will move undeflected

142. Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is:

(a) GMm/3R2             (b) GMm/6R               (c) GMm/12R2           (d) GMm/8R

143. Two identical particles move towards each other with velocity 2v and v respectively. The velocity of centre of mass is

(A) v/2                                    (b) v                            (c) v/3                         (d) zero

144. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will:

(a) Remain same        (b) None of these        (c) compress               (d) Expand

145. Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1oC is:

(a) Specific heat                                             (b) Temperature gradient

(c) Water equivalent                                      (d) Thermal capacity

146. At absolute zero, Si acts as:

(a) Insulator                (b) None of these                    (c) Non-metal             (d) Metal

147. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by:

(a) Reflection                                                             (b) Diffraction

(c) Polarization                                                           (d) Interference

148. Which of the following is used in optical fibres?

(a) Diffraction                                                            (b) Refraction

(c) Total internal reflection                                       (d) Scattering

149. The escape velocity of a body depends upon mass as:

(a) m0 (b) m2 (c) m3 (d) m1

150. Identify the pair whose dimensions are equal:

(a) Force and stress                                                    (b) Force and work

(c) Torque and work                                                   (d) Stress and energy





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